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airSlate SignNow Electronic signature Presentation Safe. Check out probably the most end user-friendly exposure to airSlate SignNow. Handle all of your record digesting and revealing system electronically. Range from hand-held, papers-structured and erroneous workflows to automatic, electronic digital and flawless. It is possible to create, deliver and signal any paperwork on any gadget anyplace. Be sure that your airSlate SignNow organization circumstances don't fall overboard.
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FAQs
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What is digital signature certificate and why is it required?
A Digital Signature Certificate is a secure digital key that is issued by the signNowing authorities to validate and signNow the identity of a person for digitally signing the document. One has to create a digital signature certificate before signing a document digitally. Digital signature certificate holder does not need to be physically present at the time of signing a document. They can sign from anywhere, anytime from virtually any device. Usually, digital signatures are much more secure than electronic signatures. Documents signed via digital signatures cannot be altered or edited after signing, which makes the transaction much more safe and secure.In layman’s language, digital signatures are used to check the authenticity of the signer and the sender signing the document and safeguards all the sensitive data, whereas a digital certificate is used to verify the authenticity of the source who issued the certificate.There are three types of digital signatures issued by the signNowing authorities: class 1, Class 2, and Class 3 Certifications.For more information on the digital signature certificate, please check this link. eMudhra | Buy Digital Signature Certificate | Paperless DSC Online
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What is the difference between certified mail and registered mail?
With certified mail, the idea is to have it delivered with proof that it was delivered. The letter or package is assumed to have no value, but to have legal confirmation that it got there. While in transit, certified mail isn't treated much differently than any other piece of first class mail. But when it's delivered, a record is made of the date of delivery, a signature is obtained, and if requested a return receipt is also signed and mailed back to the sender. Certified mail is useful for people who absolutely need to prove they communicated something, should the need arise.Registered mail is assumed to have an actual value, such as cash, an expensive watch, or an item of extreme rarity. At every step of the journey, the piece is signed for. If it disappears, the USPS needs only to follow the trail of signatures to see who had responsibility for it when it became an ex-piece of mail. You would not want to be that employee.
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What are the laws - Data Protection, Data Transmission and Export and Data Encryption in India to operate a technology platform
The Information Technology Act, 2000 came into force on 17.10.2000 vide G.S.R No. 788(E) dated 17.10.2000 and for the first time, a legal definition of “Computer”, “Data”, “electronic record”, “Information” et al were provided. The said Act gave a legal recognition to the electronic records and digital signatures and in Chapter IX thereof provided for penalty and adjudication. Section 43 of the Act interalia provided that in case of unauthorised access, download or copying or damage to data etc, the person responsible shall be liable to pay damages by way of compensation not exceeding one crore rupees to the person affected.Apart from civil liability provided under Section 43, Chapter XI (Sections 63 to 78) of the Act of 2000 provided for criminal liability in cases of Tampering, Hacking, publishing or transmitting obscene material, misrepresentation etc. Apart from the same, Section 72 of the Act provided for penalty in case of bsignNow of confidentiality and privacy and laid that in case any person who has secured access to any electronic record, Data or information, discloses the same to any other person without obtaining the consent of the person concerned, he shall be punished with imprisonment upto two years or with fine upto Rupees one lakh or with both.However, the provisions of the Information Technology Act, 2000 were not adequate and the need for more stringent data protection measures were felt, the Information Technology (Amendment) Act, 2008 was enacted which came into force on 27.10.2009. The said Amendment Act brought in the concepts like cyber security in the statute book and widened the scope of digital signatures by replacing the words “electronic signature”. The amendment act also provided for secure electronic signatures and enjoined the central government to prescribe security procedures and practices for securing electronic records and signatures (Sections 15-16) The amendment Act also removed the cap of Rupees One Crore as earlier provided under Section 43 for damage to computer and computer systems and for unauthorised downloading/ copying of data. The said Amendment Act also introduced Section 43A which provides for compensation to be paid in case a body corporate fails to protect the data. Section 46 of the Act prescribes that the person affected has to approach the adjudicating officer appointed under Section 46 of the Act in case the claim for injury or damage does not exceed Rupees Five crores and the civil court in case, the claim exceeds Rupees Five crores. The amendment act also brought/ introduced several new provisions which provide for offenses such as identity theft, receiving stolen computer resource/ device, cheating, violation of privacy, cyber terrorism, pornography (Section 66A-F & 67A-C). The amendment act also brought in provisions directing intermediaries to protect the data/information and penalty has been prescribed for disclosure of information of information in bsignNow of lawful contract (Section 72A)With the enactment of the Amendment Act of 2008, India for the first time got statutory provisions dealing with data protection. However, as the ingredients of “sensitive personal data and information” as well as the “reasonable security practices and procedures” were yet to be prescribed by the Central Government, the Ministry of Communications and Information Technology vide Notification No. GSR 313 (E) dated 11th April 2011 made the Information Technology (Reasonable Security Practices and Procedures and Sensitive Personal Data or Information ) Rules, 2011 (the said rules). Rule 3 of the said rules defines personal sensitive data or information and provides that the same may include information relating to password, financial information such as bank account or credit card details, health condition, medical records etc. Rule 4 enjoins every body corporate which receives or deals with information to provide a privacy policy. Rule 5 prescribes that every body corporate shall obtain consent in writing from the provider of the sensitive information regarding purpose of usage before collection of such information and such body corporate will not collect such information unless it is collected for a lawful purpose connected with the function or activity of such body corporate and collection of such information or data is necessary and once such data is collected, it shall not be retained for a period longer than what is required. Rule 6 provides that disclosure of the information to any third party shall require prior permission from the provider unless such disclosure has been agreed to in the contract between the body corporate and the provider or where the disclosure is necessary for compliance of a legal obligation. The Body corporate has been barred to publish sensitive information and the third parties receiving such information have been barred to disclose it further. Rule 7 lays down that the body corporate may transfer such information to any other body corporate or person in India or outside, that ensure the same level of data protection and such transfer will be allowed only if it is necessary for performance of lawful contract between the body corporate and provider of information or where the provider has consented for data transfer. Rule 8 of the said rules further provide reasonable security practises and procedures and lays down that international standard IS/ISO/IEC 27001 on “Information Technology- Security Techniques- Information Security Management System- requirements “ would be one such standard.The Ministry of Communication and Information Technology further issued a press note dated 24th August 2011 and clarified that the said rules are applicable to the body corporate or any person located within India. The press note further provides that any body corporate providing services relating to collection or handling of sensitive personal data or information under contractual obligation with any other legal entity located within India or outside is not subject to requirements of Rules 5 &6 as mentioned hereinabove. A body corporate providing services to the provider of information under a contractual obligation directly with them however has to comply with Rules 5 &6. The said press note also clarifies that privacy policy mentioned in Rule 4 relates to the body corporate and is not with respect to any particular obligation under the contract. The press note at the end provides that the consent mentioned in Rule 5 includes consent given by any mode of electronic communication.Data Protection relates to issues relating to the collection, storage, accuracy and use of data provided by net users in the use of the World Wide Web. Visitors to any website want their privacy rights to be respected when they engage in e-Commerce. It is part of the confidence-creating role that successful e-Commerce businesses have to convey to the consumer. If industry doesn't make sure it's guarding the privacy of the data it collects, it will be the responsibility of the government and it's their obligation to enact legislation.Any transaction between two or more parties involves an exchange of essential information between the parties. Technological developments have enabled transactions by electronic means. Any such information/data collected by the parties should be used only for the specific purposes for which they were collected. The need arose, to create rights for those who have their data stored and create responsibilities for those who collect, store and process such data. The law relating to the creation of such rights and responsibilities may be referred to as ‘data protection’ law.The world’s first computer specific statute was enacted in the form of a Data Protection Act, in the German state of Hesse, in 1970.The misuse of records under the Nazi regime had raised concerns among the public about the use of computers to store and process large amounts of personal data.The Data Protection Act sought to heal such memories of misuse of information. A different rationale for the introduction of data protection legislation can be seen in the case of Sweden which introduced the first national statute in 1973.Here, data protection was seen as fitting naturally into a two hundred year old system of freedom of information with the concept of subject access (such a right allows an individual to find out what information is held about him) being identified as one of the most important aspects of the legislation.In 1995, the European Union adopted its Directive (95/46/EC) of the European Parliament and of the Council of 24 October 1995 on the protection of individuals with regard to the processing of personal data and on the free movement of such data (hereinafter, the Directive), establishing a detailed privacy regulatory structure. The Directive is specific on the requirements for the transfer of data. It sets down the principles regarding the transfer of data to third countries and states that personal data of EU nationals cannot be sent to countries that do not meet the EU “adequacy” standards with respect to privacy.In order to meet the EU “adequacy” standards, US developed a ‘Safe Harbour’ framework, according to which the US Department of Commerce would maintain a list of US companies that have self-certified to the safe harbor framework. An EU organization can ensure that it is sending information to a U.S. organization participating in the safe harbor by viewing the public list of safe harbor organizations posted on the official website.Data protection has emerged as an important reaction to the development of information technology. In India data protection is covered under the Information Technology Act, 2000 (hereinafter, the Act). The Act defines ‘data’ as, “‘data’ means a representation of information, knowledge, facts, concepts or instructions which are being prepared or have been prepared in a formalized manner, and is intended to be processed, is being processed or has been processed in a computer system or computer network, and may be in any form (including computer printouts magnetic or optical storage media, punched cards, punched tapes) or stored internally in the memory of the computer”. Protection of such data and privacy are covered under specific provisions in the Act. In the recent past, the need for data protection laws has been felt to cater to various needs. The following analyses the position of data protection law with respect to some of the needs.Data Protection Law In Respect of Information Technology Enabled Services (ITES)India started liberalizing its economy in the 1990’s and since then a huge upsurge in the IT business process outsourcing may be witnessed. Financial, educational, legal, marketing, healthcare, telecommunication, banking etc are only some of the services being outsourced into India. This upsurge of outsourcing of ITES into India in the recent past may be attributed to the large English-speaking unemployed populace, cheap labour, enterprising and hardworking nature of the people etc. Statistics have shown that the outsourcing industry is one of the biggest sources of employment. In a span of four years, the number of people working in call centers in the country supporting international industries has risen from 42,000 to 3,50,000. Exports were worth $5.2 billion in 2004-2005 and are expected to grow over 40% this fiscal year. US is currently the biggest investor in Indian ITES, taking advantage of cheap labour costs. Statistics indicate that software engineers with two-years experience in India are being paid about 1/5th of an equivalent US employee.Concerns about adequacy of lawBPO FraudsWith globalization and increasing BPO industry in India, protection of data warrants legislation. There are reasons for this. Every individual consumer of the BPO Industry would expect different levels of privacy from the employees who handle personal data. But there have been situations in the recent past where employees or systems have given away the personal information of customers to third parties without prior consent. So other countries providing BPO business to India expect the Indian government and BPO organizations to take measures for data protection. Countries with data protection law have guidelines that call for data protection law in the country with whom they are transacting.For instance, in, the European Union countries according to the latest guidelines, they will cease to part with data, which are considered the subject matter of protection to any third country unless such other country has a similar law on data protection. One of the essential features of any data protection law would be to prevent the flow of data to non-complying countries and such a provision when implemented may result in a loss of "Data Processing" business to some of the Indian companies.In the recent past, concerns have been raised both within the country as well as by customers abroad regarding the adequacy of data protection and privacy laws in the country. A few incidents have questioned the Indian data protection and privacy standards and have left the outsourcing industry embarrassed. In June 2005, ‘The Sun’ newspaper claimed that one of its journalists bought personal details including passwords, addresses and passport data from a Delhi IT worker for £4.25 each. Earlier BPO frauds in India include New York-based Citibank accounts being looted from a BPO in Pune and a call-center employee in Bangalore peddling credit card information to fraudsters who stole US$398,000 from British bank accounts.UK's Channel 4 TV station ran broadcast footage of a sting operation exposing middlemen hawking the financial data of 200,000 UK citizens. The documentary has prompted Britain's Information Commissioner's Office to examine the security of personal financial data at Indian call centers.In the absence of data protection laws, the kind of work that would be outsourced to India in the future would be limited. The effect of this can be very well seen in the health-care BPO business, which is estimated to be worth close to $45 billion. Lack of data protection laws have left Indian BPO outfits still stagnating in the lower end of the value chain, doing work like billing, insurance claims processing and of course transcription. Besides healthcare, players in the retail financial sector are also affected. Financial offshoring from banks is limited because of statutory compliance requirements and data privacy laws protecting sensitive financial information in accounts. In the Human Resource (HR) domain, there are many restrictions on sharing of personal information. In the medical domain, patient history needs to be protected. In credit card transactions, identity theft could be an issue and needs to be protected. Companies in the banking, financial services and insurance (BFSI) sector and healthcare have excluded applications/processes which use sensitive information from their portfolio for offshoring till they are comfortable about the data protection laws prevalent in the supplier country.Since there is lack of data protection laws in India, Indian BPO outfits are trying to deal with the issue by attempting to adhere to major US and European regulations. MNCs have to comply with foreign Regulations so that they don’t lose on their international partners. There are problems involved in this. Efforts by individual companies may not count for much if companies rule out India as a BPO destination in the first place in the absence of data protection law.Today, the largest portion of BPO work coming to India is low-end call centre and data processing work. If India has to exploit the full potential of the outsourcing opportunity, then we have to move up the value chain. Outsourced work in Intellectual Property Rights (IPR)-intensive areas such as clinical research, engineering design and legal research is the way ahead for Indian BPO companies. The move up the value chain cannot happen without stringent laws. Further, weak laws would act as deterrents for FDI, global business and the establishment of research and development parks in the pharmaceutical industry.Looking to the above scenario, we can say that for India to achieve heights in BPO industry stringent laws for data protection and intellectual property rights have to be made. . Thus, a law on data protection on India must address the following Constitutional issues on a "priority basis" before any statutory enactment procedure is set into motion:(1) Privacy rights of interested persons in real space and cyber space.(2) Mandates of freedom of information U/A 19 (1) (a).(3) Mandates of right to know of people at large U/A 21.Once the data protection rules are enforced in India, companies outsourcing to India are unlikely to dismantle the systems they have in place straightaway, and move data more freely to India. Hence ,the need for data protection laws would win over the confidence of international business partners; protect abuse of information; protection of privacy and personal rights of individuals would be ensured; there would be more FDI inflows, global business and the establishment of research and development parks in the pharmaceutical industry & impetus to the sector of e-Commerce at national and international levels would be provided.Data protection law in India (Present status):-Data Protection law in India is included in the Act under specific provisions. Both civil and criminal liabilities are imposed for violation of data protection.(1) Section 43 deals with penalties for damage to computer, computer system etc.(2) Section 65 deals with tampering with computer source documents.(3) Section 66 deals with hacking with computer system.(4) Section 72 deals with penalty for bsignNow of confidentiality and privacy. Call centers can be included in the definition of ‘intermediary’and a ‘network service provider’ and can be penalized under this section.These developments have put the Indian government under pressure to enact more stringent data protection laws in the country in order to protect the lucrative Indian outsourcing industry. In order to use IT as a tool for socio-economic development, employment generation and to consolidate India’s position as a major player in the IT sector,amendments to the IT Act, 2000 have been approved by the cabinet and are due to be tabled in the winter session of the Parliament.Proposed amendments:-The amendments relate to the following[22]:(i) Proposal at Sec. 43 (2) related to handling of sensitive personal data or information with reasonable security practices and procedures.(ii) Gradation of severity of computer related offences under Section 66, committed dishonestly or fraudulently and punishment thereof.(iii) Proposed additional Section 72 (2) for bsignNow of confidentiality with intent to cause injury to a subscriber.It is hoped that these amendments will strengthen the law to suffice the need.Data Protection Laws In Order To Invite ‘Data Controllers’.There has been a strong opinion that if India strengthens its data protection law, it can attract multi-national corporations to India. India can be home to such corporations than a mere supplier of services.In fact, there is an argument that the EU’s data protection law is sufficient to protect the privacy of its people and thus lack of strong protection under Indian law is not a hindrance to the outsourcing industry. To enumerate, consider a company established in EU (called the ‘data controller’) and the supplier of call center services (‘data processor’) in India. If the data processor makes any mistake in the processing of personal data or there are instances of data theft, then the data controller in the EU can be made liable for the consequences. The Indian data processor is not in control of personal data and can only process data under the instructions of the data controller. Thus if a person in EU wants to exercise rights of access and retrieve personal data, the data controller has to retrieve it from the data processor, irrespective of where the data processor is located. Thus a strong data protection law is needed not only to reinforce the image of the Indian outsourcing industry but also to invite multi-national corporations to establish their corporate offices here.Data Protection And TelemarketingIndia is faced with a new phenomenon-telemarketing. This is facilitated, to a large extent, by the widespread use of mobile telephones. Telemarketing executives, now said to be available for as low as US $70 per month, process information about individuals for direct marketing. This interrupts the peace of an individual and conduct of work. There is a violation of privacy caused by such calls who, on behalf of banks, mobile phone companies, financial institutions etc. offer various schemes. The right to privacy has been read into Article 21, Constitution of India, but this has not afforded enough protection. A PIL against several banks and mobile phone service providers is pending before the Supreme Court alleging inter alia that the right to privacy has been infringed.The EC Directive confers certain rights on the people and this includes the right to prevent processing for direct marketing. Thus, a data controller is required not to process information about individuals for direct marketing if an individual asks them not to. So individuals have the right to stop unwanted marketing offers. It would be highly beneficial that data protection law in India also includes such a right to prevent unsolicited marketing offers and protect the privacy of the people.Data Protection With Regard To Governance And PeopleThe Preamble to the Act specifies that, the IT Act 2000, inter alia, will facilitate electronic filing of documents with the Government agencies. It seeks to promote efficient delivery of Government services by means of reliable electronic records. Stringent data protection laws will thus help the Government to protect the interests of its people.Data protection law is necessary to provide protection to the privacy rights of people and to hold cyber criminals responsible for their wrongful acts. Data protection law is not about keeping personal information secret. It is about creating a trusted framework for collection, exchange and use of personal data in commercial and governmental contexts. It is to permit and facilitate the commercial and governmental use of personal data.The Data Security Council of India (DSCI) and Department of Information Technology(DIT) must also rejuvenate its efforts in this regard on the similar lines. However, the best solution can come from good legislative provisions along with suitable public and employee awareness. It is high time that we must pay attention to Data Security in India. Cyber Security in India is missing and the same requires rejuvenation. When even PMO's cyber security is compromised for many months we must at least now wake up. Data bsignNowes and cyber crimes in India cannot be reduced until we make strong cyber laws. We cannot do so by mere declaring a cat as a tiger. Cyber law of India must also be supported by sound cyber security and effective cyber forensics.Indian companies in the IT and BPO sectors handle and have access to all kinds of sensitive and personal data of individuals across the world, including their credit card details, financial information and even their medical history. These Companies store confidential data and information in electronic form and this could be vulnerable in the hands of their employees. It is often misused by unsurplous elements among them. There have been instances of security bsignNowes and data leakages in high profile Indian companies. The recent incidents of data thefts in the BPO industry have raised concerns about data privacy.There is no express legislation in India dealing with data protection. Although the Personal Data Protection Bill was introduced in Parliament in 2006, it is yet to see the light of day. The bill seems to proceed on the general framework of the European Union Data Privacy Directive, 1996. It follows a comprehensive model with the bill aiming to govern the collection, processing and distribution of personal data. It is important to note that the applicability of the bill is limited to ‘personal data’ as defined in Clause 2 of the bill.The bill applies both to government as well as private enterprises engaged in data functions. There is a provision for the appointment of, “Data Controllers”, who have general superintendence and adjudicatory jurisdiction over subjects covered by the bill. It also provides that penal sanctions may be imposed on offenders in addition to compensation for damages to victims.The stringency of data protection law, whether the prevailing law will suffice such needs, whether the proposed amendments are a welcome measure, whether India needs a separate legislation for data protection etc are questions which require an in-depth analysis of the prevailing circumstances and a comparative study with laws of other countries. There is no consensus among the experts regarding these issues. These issues are not in the purview of this write-up. But there can be no doubt about the importance of data protection law in the contemporary IT scenario and are not disputable.
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What are some of the pragmatic solutions for preventing mass shootings in the US that both liberals and conservatives find mutua
For the benefit of people who don’t have a lot of time to read, I’m going to list a short version of my proposals in bullet points after this paragraph. However, if you have the time, I strongly suggest reading this answer in its entirety because it explains the proposals in fairly granular detail. The proposals are nuanced because gun control is a complicated issue when looked at objectively.Standardize on a process which flags individuals in the FBI’s Terrorist Screening Database for a delay in the background check process when said individuals try to buy a gun. During the three day delay period, the FBI has the opportunity to investigate and take legal action against the individuals if necessary.Create a secure electronic background check system which is available to the public so individuals selling firearms to residents of the same state can know whether it is safe to proceed with a transaction.Require membership in the Civilian Marksmanship Program for the purchase of semiautomatic centerfire weapons and centerfire magazines with more than ten rounds of capacity.Create a national permitting process for carrying concealed handguns which overrides state laws.The Gun Control Act of 1968 mandated that manufacturers and commercial sellers of firearms had to obtain a Federal Firearms License (FFL). This was done under the guise of regulating interstate commerce, trade which crosses state lines. The federal government is generally not allowed to regulate intrastate commerce, trade which remains entirely within a state. In 1994, the Brady Handgun Violence Prevention Act mandated that FFL holders had to perform a background check on any firearm transferred through the FFL to a individual who does not hold an FFL. In 1998, this process was streamlined into the National Instant Criminal Background Check System (NICS).With that in mind, we’re going to look at how firearms are legally purchased currently so we can have a perspective on potential improvements to the process.When buying a gun through an FFL, buyers must fill out BAFTE form 4473. I strongly recommend readers view the form. Buyers must submit valid photo identification (usually a driver’s license) to the FFL holder to verify their identity and some of the information on their form 4473. There are three categories of firearm which can be bought through a standard FFL dealer: handguns, long guns (rifles and shotguns), and “other firearms”. Buyers must be 18 years of age to buy long guns and 21 years of age to buy handguns from an FFL. “Other firearms” are a weird category which includes receivers for firearms (which is generally the serialized portion of a firearm) or firearms which do not fit the legal definition of a handgun or long gun but are also not regulated by the National Firearms Act. If the “other firearm” can be made into a pistol, the buyer must be 21 years of age. After a buyer has completed their form 4473, the FFL holder calls NICS and relays the completed information to the FBI.Source: (NICS Process in Motion for the Gun Buyer Video Transcript)The FBI runs the information through the NICS database. If the buyer’s provided information has matches within the NICS database, this will generate a “hit”. At the moment, hits include indictments and convictions for felonies, indictments and convictions for domestic violence, indictments and convictions for other crimes which are punishable by one or more years of imprisonment, known fugitives, dishonorable discharges, adjudications which determined an individual to be mentally defective, restraining orders for children or intimate partners, renouncements of citizenship, unlawful users of controlled substances, illegal aliens, and resident aliens who do not meet very specific criteria.If no hits in the NICS database are generated, the FFL is told to “proceed” and the FFL may complete transferring the firearm at the business’s discretion. If the buyer’s provided information generates a hit, the call will be transferred to an FBI employee who will review the information and determine whether the hit matches the rest of the buyer’s provided information. If the hit is valid and the buyer is a prohibited purchaser, the FFL will be told to “deny” the transfer. If the FBI employee determines the hit is invalid, the FFL will be told to “proceed”. If the FBI employee can not immediately determine the validity of a hit, the FFL will be told to “delay” the transfer and the FBI will do more research to determine the validity of a hit. At this point, the FBI is allotted three business days to tell the FFL to “proceed” or “deny”. If those three business days pass without a final judgement, the FFL may proceed with the transfer at their discretion. The system is set up this way so the FBI can not delay a buyer they can not prove is a prohibited possessor of firearms indefinitely, essentially amounting to a denial without due process of law. Nevertheless, some FFL holders maintain a policy of not proceeding with transfers which have do not receive a definite “proceed”; that is the business’s prerogative.If at any point in this process the FFL holder or its employees believes a buyer is purchasing a firearm on behalf of another person, then the FFL will deny the transfer independent of any judgement made by the FBI. Purchasing a firearm on behalf of another person is illegal.Now what about “internet gun sales”?Websites in the business of selling firearms are legally required to acquire an FFL. Since the website which holds an FFL can not visually verify a buyer’s identity, this means the firearms they sell are legally required to be transferred to an FFL near the buyer. At the FFL which facilitates the transfer, the buyer will be required to complete a form 4473 and go through a background check as described above.On auction sites which deal with firearms, buyers and sellers who do not hold FFLs will submit the information of an FFL near each party and arrange for the firearm to be transferred. The seller’s FFL will ship the firearm to the buyer’s FFL and once again the buyer will complete a form 4473 and go through a background check.The final category would be classified websites which allow firearms to be posted for sale. These are essentially the 21st century equivalent of posting a classified advertisement in a newspaper. In these cases, a buyer contacts the seller who posted the advertisement and the two parties enter negotiations. If the buyer and seller legally reside within the same state and are able to meet face to face to conduct a transfer, the firearm in question may be legally bought under federal law without a background check being conducted provided the seller does not have reason to believe the buyer is a prohibited possessor. If any of those conditions are not met, or if state law prohibits intrastate commerce in this fashion, then FFL holders must once again be involved. These conditions apply to all private person to person sales. One noteworthy quirk, under federal law, persons between the ages of 18 and 21 are not prohibited from purchasing a handgun through a private sale. This is in fact one of the very few ways citizens in this age group can exercise their constitutional right to possess handguns.What about gun shows?If a person buys a firearm from an FFL participating in a gun show (this constitutes the majority of firearm sales at gun shows) then a 4473 is filled out as normal. If a person is buying a firearm from a private party, laws regarding private sales apply. Think of gun shows simply as a way for people who might be interested in buying or selling firearms to all be in the same place at the same time. There’s nothing sneaky or tricky about them, they literally happen in convention centers and on fairgrounds. Local police and BATFE agents are always present at gun shows.Now that we have all that basic information out of the way, we can talk about actual changes to federal law.First let’s take a look at prohibiting suspected terrorists from purchasing firearms. We can all agree we hate terrorists, but they still have due process rights. Fortunately, the FBI is in charge of both the Terrorist Screening Database (TSDB) and the NICS database. Prospective gun buyers with records that produce a match in the TSDB could generate a hit in the NICS database. The FBI could then investigate the hit and, assuming the hit actually matched the buyer in question, determine whether or not to tell the FFL to delay the transfer. Within the current three day delay window, the FBI could bring the case before a judge. Should the judge find probable cause, the transfer could be legally halted. At this point the buyer should be notified and be interviewed as part of the investigation. If charges are appropriate, the FBI can file charges in a timely manner. Otherwise, the suspect should be allowed to go about their business without further interference. That puts a lot of burden on the FBI, but it isn’t supposed to be easy to legally strip citizens’ rights in the United States. Remember, the burden of proof always lies upon the accuser, not the defendant.One rather common gun control proposal in the United States is that of universal background checks on all firearm sales, including private intrastate sales. On a practical level, compliance and enforcement of a universal background check would be very difficult without some kind of national firearm registry linking specific firearms to their owners. No national firearm registry exists for regular rifles, shotguns, or pistols at the moment and it’s actually illegal to create one because of the Firearm Owners Protection Act passed in 1986. There remains a visceral fear of a firearms registry among many conservatives; the concerned parties believe that all firearm registries are nothing more than a precursor to the total confiscation of all firearms. This belief is objectively refuted because numerous firearm registries in multiple US states and democratic countries as well as a national registry on firearms regulated by the National Firearms Act exist and have not been precursors to a total confiscation of all firearms. However, many conservatives latch onto the words of a select handful of extremist politicians who espouse a desire for confiscation as proof that confiscation is the inevitable result of all registries.With all that being said, what might be feasible as an alternative to a universal background check is creating an online version of form 4473 so the public could voluntarily conduct background checks without going to an FFL. This is actually something most gun owners want because, at the moment, there’s no way of conducting a background check for a private intrastate sale in most states without involving an FFL. Involving an FFL introduces a financial disincentive because FFLs are businesses and usually charge for their services. I’ll propose the best system I’ve thought of so far which allows for minimal fraud and abuse.First, create a secure electronic variant of the 4473. It should include the buyer and seller information along with contact information for both parties. Once the form is completed, a unique confirmation number is sent out to both parties using the provided contact information. Both parties enter their confirmation numbers, then the form is submitted to the FBI and run through the NICS database. A single transaction number is generated for the NICS check and provided to the buyer and seller. The parties then call a phone number for a NICS automated line and enter the transaction number along with their unique confirmation numbers. This transfers the call to a live operator who examines the results of the NICS check performed for the transaction. The operator then tells the seller to “proceed”, “delay”, or “deny” just as they would with an FFL.The idea behind the whole system is that it allows for an effective background check to be done while offering a reasonable measure of privacy for the buyer. Sure, somebody could abuse the system if they wanted to put in enough effort, but they wouldn’t get very much information. It also removes a financial disincentive; it only costs individuals time to do a check like this and the check and be performed virtually anywhere, not just at FFL locations.Now, let’s discuss assault weapons and magazines which hold more than ten rounds. The problem with the Federal Assault Weapons Ban of 1994 was that it didn’t do anything except drive up prices on the magazines and weapons described by the ban. There was no measurable impact on crime during the ten years the Assault Weapons Ban was in effect.Here is how assault weapons were defined in 1994:Semi-automatic rifles able to accept detachable magazines and two or more of the following:Folding or telescoping stockPistol gripBayonet mountFlash suppressor, or threaded barrel designed to accommodate oneGrenade launcher mountSemi-automatic pistols with detachable magazines and two or more of the following:Magazine that attaches outside the pistol gripThreaded barrel to attach barrel extender, flash suppressor, handgrip, or suppressorBarrel shroud safety feature that prevents burns to the operatorUnloaded weight of 50 oz (1.4 kg) or moreA semi-automatic version of a fully automatic firearm.Semi-automatic shotguns with two or more of the following:Folding or telescoping stockPistol gripDetachable magazine.All of those things are cosmetic features that can be designed around. In fact, they frequently were and are designed around. Even today in states with more stringent feature based assault weapon bans, like California, there exist so called “featureless” firearms which are perfectly legal and not objectively worse for killing people than assault weapons. Now we could try an assault weapon ban again and again have no impact on crime… or we could recognize that semiautomatic centerfire weapons are undeniably the arms of choice in a militia. Police and military forces all over the world use semiautomatic (or fully automatic) centerfire weapons almost exclusively. As such, it makes more sense to more stringently regulate all semiautomatic centerfire weapons, not just a certain subset with specific cosmetic features. At the same time, we can breathe new life into the militia concept described by the Second Amendment to the United States Constitution, even make the militia well regulated.In the United States, we currently have an organization called the Civilian Marksmanship Program, a federally chartered corporation whose purpose is:To instruct citizens of the United States in marksmanship;To promote practice and safety in the use of firearms;To conduct competitions in the use of firearms and to award trophies, prizes, badges, and other insignia to competitors.Among numerous other things, the CMP sells M1 Garand rifles. The Garand is a .30–06 semiautomatic battle rifle roughly twice as powerful as common AR-15 or Kalashnikov rifles. The Garand was the primary infantry rifle of the US military during the Second World War and the Korean War. The CMP literally sells them so people can practice target shooting with a weapon of war.Image by Curiosandrelics - Own work, CC BY-SA 3.0, File:M1-Garand-Rifle.jpg - Wikimedia CommonsLet’s take a look at eligibility requirements for the CMP:REQUIREMENTS FOR PURCHASEBy law, the CMP can sell surplus military firearms, ammunition, parts and other items only to members of CMP affiliated clubs who are also U.S. citizens, over 18 years of age and who are legally eligible to purchase a firearm.PROOF OF U.S. CITIZENSHIP:You must provide a copy of a U.S. birth certificate, passport, proof of naturalization, or any official government document (When using a military ID to prove citizenship, must be an E5 or above) that shows birth in the U.S. or states citizenship as U.S.PROOF OF AGE:You must provide proof of age. Usually proof of citizenship also provides proof of age. In those cases where it may not, a driver’s license is sufficient.MEMBERSHIP IN CMP AFFILIATED ORGANIZATION:You must provide a copy of your current membership card or other proof of membership. This requirement cannot be waived. The CMP currently has over 2,000 affiliated organizations located in many parts of the country. CMP Club Member Certification Form- If your CMP affiliated club does not issue individual membership cards, please have the club fill out the CMP Club Member Certification Form and return it with your order.Membership in many of these organizations costs $25.00 or less and can be accomplished online. A listing of affiliated organizations can be found by clicking on our Club Search web page at http://ct.thecmp.org/app/v1/inde.... If you have any difficulty in locating a club, please contact the CMP at 256-835-8455 or by emailing CMP Customer Service. We will find one for you. In addition to shooting clubs, the CMP also has several special affiliates. Membership in these organizations satisfies our requirement for purchase. These special affiliates include: Congressionally chartered veterans' organizations such as the VFW, AL, DAV, MCL, etc. U.S. Military services (active or reserves), National Guard, to include retirees. Professional 501(c)3 law enforcement organizations and associations such as the FOP, NAPO, NSA, etc. The Garand Collector's Association is a CMP Affiliated Club. You can download a Garand Collector's Association Application Form.Note: Club membership IS required for purchase of rifles, parts, and ammunition.Club membership is NOT required for instructional publications or videos or CMP memorabilia.MARKSMANSHIP OR OTHER FIREARMS RELATED ACTIVITY:You must provide proof of participation in a marksmanship related activity or otherwise show familiarity with the safe handling of firearms and range procedures. Your marksmanship related activity does not have to be with highpower rifles; it can be with smallbore rifles, pistols, air guns or shotguns. Proof of marksmanship participation can be provided by documenting any of the following:Current or past military service.Current or past law enforcement serviceParticipation in a rifle, pistol, air gun or shotgun competition (provide copy of results bulletin).Completion of a marksmanship clinic that included live fire training (provide a copy of the certificate of completion or a statement from the instructor).Distinguished, Instructor, or Coach status.Concealed Carry License.Firearms Owner Identification Cards that included live fire training. - FFL or C&R license.Completion of a Hunter Safety Course that included live fire training.Certification from range or club official or law enforcement officer witnessing shooting activity. Complete the CMP Marksmanship Form to signNow your range firing and the required marksmanship related activity for an individual to purchase from the CMP.No proof of marksmanship required if over age 60. Proof of club membership and citizenship required for all ages. NOTE: Proof of marksmanship activity is not required for purchase of ammunition, parts, publications or memorabilia.BE LEGALLY ELIGIBLE TO PURCHASE A FIREARM:The information you supply on your application will be submitted by the CMP to the FBI National Instant Criminal Check System (NICS) to verify you are not prohibited by Federal, State or Local law from acquiring or possessing a rifle. Your signature on the Purchaser Certification portion of the purchase application authorizes the CMP to initiate the NICS check and authorizes the FBI to inform CMP of the result. IMPORTANT: If your State or locality requires you to first obtain a license, permit, or Firearms Owner ID card in order to possess or receive a rifle, you must enclose a photocopy of your license, permit, or card with the application for purchase.As you can see, the CMP eligibility process is quite a bit more involved than the background check system we have now. It seems to have worked for keeping the powerful semiautomatic Garand rifles out of the hands of mass murderers. The last mass shooting on US soil that I know of which involved an M1 Garand was the Kent State massacre and that involved the Ohio National Guard shooting anti-war protesters, not civilians who were sold rifles through the CMP. I haven’t been able to find any records of crimes committed with guns sold through the CMP. I’m sure it has happened at one point in time or another, but the occurrence is so rare that there hasn’t been any documentation. My point is that the CMP has a really great track record in the United States for making sure guns don’t go to bad guys.Since the Assault Weapons Ban of 1994 didn’t have any measurable impacts on crime and the CMP has great results, I propose we extend the CMP eligibility requirements to all semiautomatic centerfire firearms and centerfire magazines with more than ten rounds of capacity. This means only people who meet the listed criteria will be able to buy the types of weapons most useful in a militia which are also the weapons we primarily see used in mass shootings from an FFL. The proposal also effectively introduces a mandatory training and basic competency requirement before individuals can purchase semiautomatic centerfire weapons from a gun store. The inclusion of CMP eligibility for the purchase of centerfire magazine over ten rounds creates a strong incentive for existing gun owners and individuals who purchase firearms through private intrastate sales to get training and join the CMP if they want easy access to centerfire magazines over ten rounds.The word centerfire is really important because there is another class of firearms which use rimfire cartridges.A collection of rimfire and centerfire cartridges, left to right: .22lr (rimfire), .22WMR (rimfire), .357 magnum (centerfire), .30–06 Springfield (centerfire), 12 gauge shotshell (centerfire)Rimfire cartridges aren’t very powerful; they’re mostly used for small game hunting and target shooting. Most countries allow ownership of semiautomatic rimfire rifles with only basic licensing; countries like Canada and the UK don’t even have restrictions on magazine capacity for rimfire rifles. Could they be used by a mass shooter? Sure, anything could, but semiautomatic rimfire firearms just aren’t a threat compared to semiautomatic centerfire firearms or even non-semiautomatic centerfire firearms. Wounds caused by bullets fired from rimfire cartridges are almost always less severe than wounds caused by bullets fired from centerfire cartridges. Very precise shot placement is required for rimfire weapons to instantly kill a person and mass shooters are unlikely to take the time to precisely place their shots.Seen above are four rimfire rifles made by Marlin.Regulating firearms in this way allows new gun owners to hunt, shoot targets, and defend themselves using semiautomatic rimfire or manually operated firearms. If new gun owners want easy access to semiautomatic centerfire firearms which are useful in a militia context, they can join the CMP, effectively becoming a member of a well regulated militia, after demonstrating themselves to be competent and well trained.I have some final thoughts on the CMP related proposal before moving on to the next topic. CMP eligibility introduces additional layers of human interaction between people and semiautomatic centerfire weapons and centerfire magazines over ten rounds. Barring major advances in mental healthcare and adjudication in the United States, layers of human interaction are the best way for red flags to be raised about somebody who might want to kill large numbers of people with a firearm. Additional layers of human interaction also introduce a larger hurdle for straw purchasers, people who buy firearms for people who can’t pass background checks because they’re ineligible to own firearms. Additional layers of human interaction make law enforcement investigations slightly easier as well.At the moment, laws, standards, and permits for carrying concealed handguns vary wildly. Some states have no requirements while other states functionally don’t allow anybody except police officers to carry handguns in any way. While the percentage of the US population which actually carries handguns regularly, concealed or openly, is relatively small, those who do carry handguns regularly can often face great legal peril for no particularly good reason when crossing state lines. At the same time, it would be good for the public to know that people carrying concealed handguns are actually competent and not a hazard to the public. In essence, a balance would be preferable to the extremes which currently exist.I propose creating an national permit for carrying concealed handguns in any state. Police officers already enjoy something similar to this. The permitting process should include a standardized class which can be taught by police officers or other qualified instructors. Before attending the class, applicants should undergo a background check. Among other things, the class should cover the legal use of deadly force, safe firearms handling practices, and conflict deescalation practices. Then applicants should be given a written test on the subjects. If the applicants pass, they should then undergo a practical handgun handling and shooting competency test. If applicants are able to both handle handguns safely and shoot accurately, they will then be issued a carry permit which is valid for a certain number of years; three to five years seems reasonable. If applicants fail either test then they go home without a permit and can retake the whole class the next time it is offered if they still wish to carry a concealed handgun.
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Do you think UPSC is always beyond the lakhs of aspirants and 1000s of coaching institutes in term of paper setting?
Thank you for A2A.Yes and No both . UPSC PRELIMS is beyond 1000 coaching institutes who do not understand the demand and nature of exam and lakhs of aspirants who blindly depend on them.But UPSC PRELIMS is most predictable and safe exam if you understand it . I myself has proved by clearing all 6 prelims back to back with huge margins( 145- GS1).Let me explain YOU (Ladies and Gentlemen)This is the breakup of subjects this yearHere only 20 were pure current affairs. Other 12 were contemporary topics and were 1 year old so can’t be categorized as current affairs directly. Thus the bulk of questions came from Static and FundamentalsSantosh Sir Prediction before exam :Now read what I had predicted before exam.I had categorically suggested that this year they will focus on Fundamentals and static. Reading and following websites and mugging up stupid compilations will be a waste of time.I had asked to read newspapers , the Hindu .Most of questions are picked from The Hindu like the species one ,etcMy subject distribution was also close.Which section in the prelims 2019 is expected to give more questions according to the trend?I request you go through all my posts and see how relevant they were for PRELIMS 2019.I had strictly warned not to read bulky govt scheme compilation , it was suicidal . I had suggested only few . And I was bang on - only one scheme came which i had suggested Atal innocation mission.1. In India,'extended producer responsibility' was introduced as an important feature in which of the following?(a) The Bio-medical Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 1998(b) The Recycled plastic (Manufacturing and Usage) Rules, 1999(c) The e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011(d) The Food Safety and Standard Regulations, 2011My Topic List 3.5 Important topics from environment “ Extended Producer Responsibility”2.Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India.3. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based on the recommendations of Ramsar Convention.3. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority.Which of the statements given above is / are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3My Topic List Important topics from environment : Ramsar Wetland3.As per law, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority exists at both National and State levels.2. People's participation is mandatory in the compensatory afforestation programmes carried out under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016.Which of the statements given above is / are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2CAMPA Compensatory afforestationMy Topic List Important topics from environment: CAMPA4. In the context of which one of the following are the terms 'pyrolysis and plasma gasification' mentioned?(a) Extraction of rare earth elements(b) Natural gas extraction technologies(c) Hydrogen fuel-based automobiles(d) Waste-to-energy technologiesMy Topic List : Waste to energy5. In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate and triazophos is viewed with apprehension. These chemicals are used as(a) pesticides in agriculture(b) preservatives in processed foods(c) fruit-ripening agents(d) moisturising agents in cosmeticsMy Topic List 3.5 Important topics from environment:: Stockhom-Persistant Organic Pollutatnt5. Why is there a great concern about the 'microbeads' that are released into environment?(a) They are considered harmful to marine ecosystems.(b) They are considered to cause skin cancer in children.(c) They are small enough to be absorbed by crop plants in irrigated fields.(d) They are often found to be used as food adulterants.My Topic List 3.5 Important topics from environment: Dead Zones in Ocean6. Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India:1. PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory.2. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status.3. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far.4. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs.Which of the statements given above are correct?(a) 1, 2 and 3(b) 2, 3 and 4(c) 1, 2 and 4(d) 1, 3 and 4My Topic List Important Environment Topics :PVTGs in A&N( Tribes)7. Which of the following are the reasons for the occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens in India?1. Genetic predisposition of some people2. Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure diseases3. Using antibiotics in livestock farming4. Multiple chronic diseases in some peopleSelect the correct answer using the code given below.(a) 1 and 2(b) 2 and 3 only(e) 1, 3 and 4(d) 2, 3 and 4My Topic List Important Anti Microbial Resistance and Policy8. With reference to Mian Tansen, which one of the following statements is not correct?(a) Tansen was the title given to him by Emperor Akbar.(b) Tansen composed Dhrupads on Hindu gods and goddesses.(c) Tansen composed songs on his patrons.(d) Tansen invented many Ragas.9. Consider the following statements:1. Saint Nimbarka was a contem-porary of Akbar.2. Saint Kabir was greatly influenced by Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2My Topic lis :Kabir and Akbar10. Consider the following statements:1. Most of India's external debt is owed by governmental entities.2. All of India's external debt is denominated in US dollars.Which of the statements given above is / are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2Debt11. Which one of the following is not the most likely measure the Government/RBI takes to stop the slide of Indian rupee?(a) Curbing imports of non-essential goods-and promoting exports(b) Encouraging Indian borrowers to issue rupee denominated Masala Bonds(c) Easing conditions relating to external commercial borrowing(d) Following an expansionary monetary policyRBI steps to check currency devaluation12. In the context of India, which of the following factors is/are contributor/ contributors to reducing the risk of a currency crisis?1. The foreign currency earnings of India's IT sector2. Increasing the government expenditure3. Remittances from Indians abroadSelect the correct answer using the code given below.(a) 1 only(b) 1 and 3 only(c) 2 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: bCurrency Crisis13. Which of the following is issued by registered foreign portfolio investors to overseas investors who want to be part of the Indian stock market without registering themselves directly?(a) Certificate of Deposit(b) Commercial Paper(c) Promissory Note(d) Participatory NoteP notes14.1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid.2. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India.Which of the statements given above is / are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2My Topic List : Amendments15. Building 'Kalyaana Mandapas' was a notable feature in the temple construction in the kingdom of(a) Chalukya(b) Chandela(c) Rashtrakuta(d) VijayanagaraVijayanagar empire (Themes part II) (chap 6)16. Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the(a) Department of Science and Technology(b) Ministry of Employment(c) NITI Aayog(d) Ministry of Skill Development and EntrepreneurshipMt Topic List : AIM17.1.The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary.44th AmendmentWhich of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2Amendments and HC18. Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) exchange rates are calculated by comparing the prices of the same basket of goods and services in different countries.2. In terms of PPP dollars, India is the sixth largest economy in the world.Which of the statements given above is / are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2GDP -PPP19. With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?(a) The decisions taken by the Election Commission of India while discharging its duties cannot be challenged in any court of law.(b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the Parliament.(c) In the event of grave financial crisis in the country, the President of India can declare Financial Emergency without the counsel from the Cabinet.(d) State Legislatures cannot make laws on certain matters without the concurrence of Union Legislature.Advisory Jurisdiction20.1. As per recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the right to fell the bamboos grown on forest areas.2. As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is a minor forest produce.3. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers.Which of the statements given above is / are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3FRA 200621. In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty?(a) Protection against the tyranny of political rulers(b) Absence of restraint(c) Opportunity to do whatever one likes(d) Opportunity to develop oneself fullyLiberty22. Consider the following statements:1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 244th amendment23. The- motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.2. The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what Constitutes 'incapacity and proved misbehaviour' of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India.3. The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 and 2(b) 3 only(c) 3 and 4 only(d) 1, 3 and 4Judges removal24. Asiatic Lion Conservation Project ( endangered, canine distemper virus, Gir, Pania sanctuary)25. What is common to the places known as Aliyar, Isapur and Kangsabati?(a) Recently discovered uranium deposits(b) Tropical rain forests(c) Underground cave systems(d) Water reservoirsAnswer: DIndian Major Dams- New dams26. Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?(a) Third Schedule(b) Fifth Schedule(c) Ninth Schedule(d) Twelfth Schedule27. The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of(a) Jawaharlal Nehru(b) Lal Bahadur Shastri(c) Indira Gandhi(d) Morarji DesaiSchedules28. In the context of which of the following do some scientists suggest the use of cirrus cloud thinning technique and the injection of sulphate aerosol into stratosphere?(a) Creating the artificial rains in some regions(b) Reducing the frequency and intensity of tropical cyclones(c) Reducing the adverse effects of solar wind on the Earth(d) Reducing the global warmingClimate engineering –carbon capture, Bio char, stratospheric aerosol injection29. Consider the following:1. Deification of the Buddha2. Treading the path of Bodhisattvas3. Image worship and ritualsWhich of the above is/are the feature/ features of Mahayana Buddhism?(a) 1 only(b) 1 and 2 only(c) 2 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3My Topic list :Buddhism features30.The Environment Protection Act, 1986 empowers the Government of India to1. state the requirement of public participation in the process of environmental protection, and the procedure and manner in which it is sought2. lay down The standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sourcesWhich of the statements given above is/ are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2My topic List :EPA31.1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of 'Office of Profit'.2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.3. The term 'Office of Profit' is well-defined in the Constitution of India.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 3 only(c) 2 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3My Topic List Polity : Office of profitoffice of Profit32.1.According to the Indian Patents Act, a biological process to create a seed can be patented in India.2. In India, there is no Intellectual Property Appellate Board.3. Plant varieties are not eligible to be patented in India.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 and 3 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3My Topic List :Indian Patent and Farmer right33.In the context of wearable technology, which of the following tasks is/are accomplished by wearable devices?1. Location identification of a person2. Sleep monitoring of a person3. Assisting the hearing impaired personSelect the correct answer using the code given below.(a) 1 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3My topic List :Cyber Physical System34.Recently, scientists observed the merger of giant 'blackholes' billions of light-years away from the Earth. What is the significance of this observation?(a) 'Higgs boson particles' were detected.(b) 'Gravitational waves' were detected.(e) Possibility of inter-galactic space travel through 'wormhole' was confirmed.(d) It enabled the scientists to understand 'singularity'.My topic List :Gravitational waves35.Consider the following pairs:Movement/OrganizationLeader1. All India Anti-Untouchability LeagueMahatma Gandhi2. All India Kisan SabhaSwami Sahajanand Saraswati3. Self-Respect MovementE. V. Ramaswami NaickerWhich of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?(a) 1 only(b) 1 and 2 only(c) 2 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3My topic List :Self-respect movement37. Consider the following pairs:SeaBordering country1. Adriatic SeaAlbania2. Black SeaCroatia3. Gaspian SeaKazakhstan4. Mediterranean SeaMorocco5. Red SeaSyriaWhich of the pair given above are correctly matched?(a) 1, 2 and 4 only(b) 1, 3 and 4 only(c) 2 and 5 only(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5My Topic List :black Sea and Mediterranean Sea-38. With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in India, consider the following statements :1. The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the House at the commencement of the first session of the year .2. When a State Legislature does not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter.Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 239. With reference to Indian National Movement, consider the following pairs:PersonPosition held1. Sir Tej Bahadur SapruPresident, All India Liberal Federation2. K. C. NeogyMember, The Constituent Assembly3. P. C. JoshiGeneral Secretary, Communist Party of IndiaMy Topic List :Constituent assemblySantosh Sir Elimination Techniques:Can you share your intelligent guessing tricks?40 . With reference to Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB), consider the following statements1. AIIB has more than 80 member nations.2. India is the largest shareholder in AIIB.3. AIIB does not have any members from outside Asia.Which of the statements given above is / are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c). 1 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: aHere statement 2 and statement 3 can be eliminated because they are extreme. You can read what I had advised in my intelligent guessing tricks.41. What was the purpose of Inter-Creditor Agreement signed by Indian banks and financial institutions recently?(a) To lessen the Government of India's perennial burden of fiscal deficit nd current account deficit(b) To support the infrastructure projects of Central and State Governments(c) To act as independent regulator in case of applications for loans of Rs. 50 crore or more(d) To aim at faster resolution of stressed assets of Rs. 50 crore or more which are-under consortium lendingAnswer: dHere option c and d can only be the answer as they are common.42. The Chairmen of public sector banks are selected by the(a) Banks Board Bureau(b) Reserve Bank of India(c) Union Ministry of Finance(d) Management of concerned bankAnswer: cTopic List : Banking bsics43. Consider the following statements:1. Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) is the first regulatory body set up by the Government of India.2. One of the tasks of PNGRB is to, ensure competitive markets for gas.3. Appeals against the decisions of PNGRB go before the Appellate Tribunals for Electricity.Which of the statements given above are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 1 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: bHere also extreme statement like First in option 1 can be eliminated. Thus we get the answer.44. With reference to communication technologies, what is/are the difference / differences between LTE (Long-Term Evolution) and VoLTE (Voice over Long-Term Evolution)?1. LTE 'is commonly marketed as 3G and VoLTE is commonly marketed as advanced 3G.2. LTE is data-only technology and VoLTE is voice-only technology.Select the correct answer using the code given below.(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2Answer: dTopic List : 5G 4 G.45. Which one of the following is not a sub-index of the World Bank's 'Ease of Doing Business Index'?(a) Maintenance of law and order(b) Paying taxes(c) Registering property(d) Dealing with construction permitsAnswer: aHere option a is unrelated to the question , thus can be eliminated easily. Other 3 deals with doing business.Some indirect Topics46.The Chairmen of public sector banks are selected by the(a) Banks Board Bureau(b) Reserve Bank of India(c) Union Ministry of Finance(d) Management of concerned bankBanking basics:47.Which of the following is not included in the assets of a commercial bank in India?(a) Advances(b) Deposits(e) Investments(d). Money at call and short noticeMy Topic list :Banking48. With reference to the cultivation of Kharif crops in India in the last five years, consider the following statements:1. Area under rice cultivation is the highest.2. Area under the cultivation of jowar is more than that of oilseeds.3. Area of cotton cultivation is more than that of sugarcane.4. Area under sugarcane cultivation has steadily decreased.Which of the statements given above are correct?(a) 1 and 3 only(b) 2, 3 and 4 only(c) 2 and 4 only(d) 1, 2, 3 and 449. Consider the following statements:A digital signature is1. an electronic record that identifies the signNowing authority issuing it2. used to serve as a proof of identity of an individual to access information or server on Internet.3. an electronic method of signing an electronic document and ensuring that the original content is unchangedWhich of the statements given above is / are correct?(a) 1 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3Answer: dMy Topics list - Digital India51. Which of the following statements are correct about the deposits of 'methane hydrate?1. Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits.2. Large deposits of 'methane hydrate' are found in Arctic Tundra and under the seafloor.3. Methane in atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide after a decade or two.Select the correct answer using the code given below.(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 2 and 3 only(c) 1 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3My topic List : Climate change and oceans and Deep Ocean Mining.There are many more which I didn’t include because they were indirect.My point here is if you understand the nature and demand of exam , its easy. I have done it not once but six times . You can also do it.But you have to cut the clutter. If you read and follow unnecessary online stuff daily which UPSC will never ask , you are bound to lose as your precious time will get wasted.For free mains guidance :( AsksantoshSir- telegram)How can I join the PGP program for 2020?We are starting mains guidance in a week . I will continue guiding you in this journey . But always remember
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What are the best property management systems?
There is no one property management system that is ideal for every use case. It depends on who you are and what you are looking for in the system.For residential property managers:If you are a professional property manager and have full service clients, then I have found the best softwares are Yardi and Appfolio. Yardi is a bit more of a “legacy” system — robust but not as fresh as Appfolio, promoting a great UI/UX (user interface and user experience). If you are a property manager and do not use software, then IMO - you are failing at your business. Software will reduce your overhead costs and help mitigate risks of forgetting lease renewals, late fees, etc.. The cost and time related to the setup can be gruesome, but it is well worth it in the end. You’ll be able to take on more clients and provide them with a much better experience.For residential property owners:The majority of owners across the US (80%) self manage their properties. Most of them do not use software, because it is a relatively new concept for them. From a systems perspective, it will depend on what you are looking to accomplish with your real estate goals.Here is an article that all owners should read to understand what kind of management system they want (passive or involved) and what type of solutions cater to their needs.
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